Let's assume this is not a trick question. Hopefully you should know what minoxidil solution is, and if you don't you're going to be really struggling with this exam!
Rogaine (USA) or Regaine (UK/HK) - why do they do that? Can Americans not cope with 'Regaine' rather than 'Rogaine'? Or vice versa (so as to not sound anti-American)?
Where would pharmacy be if it couldn't sell Minoxidil solution over the counter eh? Just kidding (kind of). Back in the day when it first came out it was prescription only. Then the Rogaine/Regaine people successfully moved it to a Pharmacy med status. Thus reducing the time doctors had to spend looking at alopecic patients.
So yes. Assuming the question is completely above board, then it is a P1 med. The only thing that might give one pause is the strength, is there more than one strength, is this the stronger one or not, and are their different schedulings for different strengths?
But a quick check on MIMS shows that even the stronger solution (5%) is P1.
And there you have it.
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